question from archiprep
Hi,
This question's answer is C. I agree C is right but I think A is right too so I was struggling between A and C for a while and eventually picked A. My question is why C is better than A?
The answer says "The architect, not the consultant, is responsible for omissions related to the design of consultant's portion of the work". However, look at 1.4 from C401, it says the opposite "The architect shall not be responsible for for acts or omissions of of the consultant.".
Please let me know. Thanks!
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Answer A is not clear in its meaning:
To the owner, the architect is responsible for the consultant’s work per B101, Standard Form of Agreement Between Owner and Architect.
To the architect, the consultant is responsible for the consultant’s work per C401, Standard Form of Agreement Between Architect and Consultant.
So, the owner will seek damages from the architect for consultant’s errors, and the architect can sue the consultant to recover his loss for what he has to pay the owner for the consultant’s mistakes.
Gang Chen, Author, Architect, LEED AP BD+C (GreenExamEducation.com)
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Gang, do you happen to know the question I post under this link? I think you answered my 2nd question the other day. Thanks in advance! Your explanation is really helpful.
https://are5community.ncarb.org/hc/en-us/community/posts/360046553973-one-question-from-Archiprep
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