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Yan Zhang

June 16, 2020 02:18

Here is the question.

In A201, term 7.3.1, the change directive is prepared by architect. Does the "issue" in the question mean "prepare"? 

If not, I understand architect for sure needs owner's agreement to issue the change directive. I thought the owner also need architect's agreement to issue the change directive too. If owner wants to issue anything violate the code, and the architect disagrees with it, then this change directive is not valid.

 

Please let me know why this answer is "owner". Thanks.

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  David Kaplan June 16, 2020 09:32

  This is a poorly worded question, and I truly feel that if this same question were asked on the ARE, the answer WOULD be "the architect."  I think that they are intending that the word "issue" in this case means the person who says "OK, let's go ahead and get the work done."  I assure you that this is a stupid way of asking this question.  You have every right to have read the word "issue" as the person the actual prepares and formally submits the Change Directive, and yes, that person is the architect.

  You are right.  The question is wrong.  And just know that you won't get such a question like this on the ARE that is worded so poorly.  For all its faults, having now passed all the exams, I did not personally find that the wording was vague like this on the actual tests.

  Good luck.

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  Yan Zhang June 16, 2020 14:26

  Ah, good to know that you did not find such vague wording on the actual exams. That is a relief. Thank you for clarify this question for me.

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